Re: more questions (fwd)

["Joseph Tolbert" <jlt6@hotmail.com>]

Poster: "Joseph Tolbert" <jlt6@hotmail.com>

I have read that at one time in England a prisoner would be 'pressed'
to plead for by law the crown could only confiscate their property
if they plead either 'guilty' or 'not guilty' - they could still be 
executed, but their family would not be impoverished if they did not
plead.
     Will one of our legal historians tell me if this is correct ?

Joseph L. Tolbert,Jr            jlt6@hotmail.com

=====================================================================


>Date: Fri, 18 Dec 1998 09:34:11 -0500
>From: marybeth lavrakas <Marybeth_Lavrakas@med.unc.edu>
>To: James Gilly / Alasdair mac Iain <alasdair.maciain@snet.net>
>CC: The Merry Rose <atlantia@atlantia.sca.org>
>Subject: Re: more questions (fwd)
>Reply-To: marybeth lavrakas <Marybeth_Lavrakas@med.unc.edu>
>
>
>Poster: marybeth lavrakas <Marybeth_Lavrakas@med.unc.edu>
>
>Re: pressing at Salem...and this wasn't even someone who'd been
>convicted, I believe that this was just to try and force a confession
>out of him (Giles somebody?  I really should know this, having grown up
>in MA and all...)
>
>Kathryn Rous
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